From the Debate Files


More examples of Christian Bible rationalizations and preaching.

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TOPIC: The Law of God, Jesus fulfilling the Law, a Christian unable to support his claims.

Here another Christian explains God's Law and Jesus. And once again, the believer simply twists the scriptures to suit his needs.
Many topics are covered in this exchange and some of them are repeats of topics already covered in prior debate excerpts. The reason for including these topics again is to illustrate the utterly robotic nature of Christian preaching.
The same spurious claims are made by so many cult members and is a product of the intensive indoctrination procedures Christianity uses to train it's members.
Christians think that if something is repeated often enough, it becomes "fact".

Christian wrote:
The purpose of Jesus' life and work was to fulfill both the Law (the books of Moses) and the Prophets (other Old Testament books). He did not destroy the Old Testament.
But that doesn't mean that Christians have to keep all the old laws. As we know, Jesus' ministry caused many changes in the law --- changes so dramatic that laws were "set aside" or declared "obsolete" (Heb. 7:18; 8:13).

Commentary::
How do perfect and eternal laws become obsolete?
Psa 19:7
The law of the LORD is
perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple.

Psa 119:160
Thy word is true from the beginning: and every one of thy righteous judgments(laws)
endureth for ever.

How did Jesus fulfill the law when he ignored parts of it?

Christian:
Some laws remained the same, some were changed, and others were "abolished" (Eph. 2:15).

Commentary:
How does an eternal law become abolished?

Christian:
When Jesus said, "I have not come to abolish the Law or the Prophets," he did not mean that each specific law would stay exactly the same.
He meant that the purpose and message of the Law and the Prophets remain exactly the same.

Commentary:
That's not what the text says. The text says nothing about some laws being canceled and others staying the same.
The text also says nothing about only the "purpose and message" of the law remaining the same.
The text says the law was to be followed to the letter.
Matt 5:17-19
Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
For verily I say unto you,
Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.


There is no wiggle room here for assuming, in any way, that the Law was not to be in full effect.

Christian:
The Law and the Prophets pointed to him and were intended from the beginning to be fulfilled by him.

Commentary:
Where does the Old Testament Law delivered by Moses from God mention anything about Jesus?
You don't fulfill a law by ignoring it.

Christian:
Some of the specific laws of the old covenant are still valid, but many of them were set aside when Jesus came and fulfilled them by his life, death and resurrection.

Commentary:
Really?
How does an eternal law become "set aside"?
Where exactly in Matt 5:17-19 does Jesus state that only some laws will still be valid?
He says the exact opposite then ignored his own teaching. Jesus ignored the food laws, the law regarding work on the Sabbath, and the law on adultery.
If fulfilling the law is achieved by ignoring the law, then courts should dismiss cases against people who ignore the law.

Christian:
Matthew 5:17 is not a "proof" of any particular law, because this verse does not tell us which specific laws are still valid or which have been changed or set aside.

Commentary:
The proof is provided in Matt 5:18-19.
It directly contradicts your claim that some laws were canceled and abolished.
It states that:
Matt 5:18-19
For verily I say unto you,
Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.


No laws are set aside or invalid.

Christian:
Old covenant laws (such as the laws of sacrifice) have been set aside precisely because Jesus has fulfilled them.

Commentary:
How exactly did Jesus fulfill the requirements of a proper sin sacrifice according to the Mosaic law?

Christian:
He(Jesus) did not come for the purpose of destroying those laws, but for fulfilling their meaning.

Commentary:
The text does not say Jesus would fulfill their "meaning" it says he came to fulfill the law itself.

Christian:
However, by fulfilling their meaning, he(Jesus) made it unnecessary for Christians to keep those laws.

Commentary:
The text says nothing about simply fulfilling a "meaning".
The text says he came to fulfill the law itself. How exactly did Jesus fulfill laws which he ignored?
Matt 5:18
For verily I say unto you,
Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

Heaven and earth have not passed away yet. The law is in full effect. Eternal laws aren't canceled.
Psa 119:160
Thy word is true from the beginning: and every one of thy righteous judgments(laws)
endureth for ever.

Christian:
They(the laws) are unnecessary because they have served their purpose by pointing to Jesus.

Commentary:
Eternal laws become "unnecessary"???
God certainly didn't think they were unnecessary.
Psa 119:1-4
Blessed are the undefiled in the way,
who walk in the law of the LORD.
Blessed are they that
keep his testimonies, and that seek him with the whole heart.
They also do no iniquity: they walk in his ways.
Thou(God) hast commanded us to
keep thy precepts diligently.

Have heaven and earth passed away yet?
What do you suppose the words "keep thy precepts(laws) diligently" mean?
Where exactly does the Old Testament say that the real purpose of the Mosaic Law was to point to Jesus and that some laws would be canceled?

Christian:
Jesus is the reality to which they(the laws) could only point. Now that he has come, they are no longer legally binding.

Commentary:
Where does the Old Testament state that the eternal law wouldn't be binding after a king Messiah or a character called "Jesus" appeared?

Christian:
Yet because they(the laws) point to Jesus Christ and show how God interacted with a group of people at one time and place, the old covenant laws continue to give us insights into God's will.

Commentary:
Where in the Old Testament does it says that God told Moses that the laws he gave to Moses were really meant to point to Jesus?
Where does God tell Moses that the laws he gave to Moses were only temporary?

Christian:
Even the laws of sacrifice are "useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness" (2 Tim. 3:16).

Commentary:
How was Jesus a proper sin sacrifice according to the Mosaic law?
Since when were humans on the list of clean animals that were to be used for sacrifice?
In order to fulfill the law on sacrifice, the requirements of the law should be followed and not ignored or bypassed.

Christian:
Jesus also fulfilled various laws about ritual cleanliness.

Commentary:
Jesus declared all foods clean.
Mark 7:18-19
And he saith unto them, Are ye so without understanding also? Do ye not perceive,
that whatsoever thing from without entereth into the man, it cannot defile him;
Because it entereth not into his heart, but into the belly, and goeth out into the draught, purging all meats?


Where in the Old Testament does God cancel his requirements as laid down in Lev 11 as to what foods were clean?
God made it quite clear in Lev 11:44-47 and Lev 20:25-26 that all food are not clean.
How did Jesus fulfill the food laws by ignoring them and telling others to ignore them?

Christian:
That did not mean that he never became unclean, of course, because anyone with normal bodily functions would occasionally become unclean (Deut. 23:10). Jesus also touched dead people, lepers and other causes of uncleanness. It was not a sin to be unclean.

Commentary:
It is a sin to eat unclean food however.
Lev 11:42-44
Whatsoever goeth upon the belly, and whatsoever goeth upon all four, or whatsoever hath more feet among all creeping things that creep upon the earth,
them ye shall not eat; for they are an abomination.
Ye shall not make yourselves abominable with any creeping thing that creepeth,
neither shall ye make yourselves unclean with them, that ye should be defiled thereby.
For I am the LORD your God: ye shall therefore sanctify yourselves, and ye shall be holy; for I am holy:
neither shall ye defile yourselves with any manner of creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

Jesus declared all foods clean in Mark 7:18-19. How did Jesus fulfill God's law by teaching people to ignore that law?

Christian:
However, Jesus fulfilled the purpose of the purity laws:
He was morally and spiritually pure. He had an internal holiness, set apart to do the work of God.

Commentary:
How exactly did Jesus fulfill the food laws which God gave when he ignored them and taught others to ignore them?

Matt 5:19
Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments,
and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

How exactly is Jesus pure when he breaks the law and teaches others to do the same?
Do you fulfill the purpose of a speeding law by ignoring it?

Christian:
Jesus fulfilled the purpose of God's laws.

Commentary:
Jesus fulfilled the purpose of God's law by ignoring it?
Where does the Old Testament state that God's laws weren't really to be followed but could be ignored?

Christian:
He did not destroy the need for people to obey God, even though his crucifixion brought a change in some of the details of how they obey God.

Commentary:
How do you obey God when you ignore his law?
Where in the Old Testament does it say that "some" of the laws would no longer need to be followed once Jesus arrived and canceled God's prior instructions?

Christian:
And keep in mind, these Laws were not fully fulfilled until the time of his death and resurrection.

Commentary:
How did Jesus fully fulfill the requirements for a proper sin sacrifice according to the Mosaic law?
How did Jesus fully fulfill the food laws by ignoring them?
How did Jesus fully fulfill the no work requirement of the Sabbath by having his disciples pick grain/corn on the Sabbath?
How did Jesus fully fulfill the law on adultery by letting a guilty woman off with a warning?
Where does the Old Testament state that some of God's laws would be canceled once a king Messiah died and was resurrected?

Footnote:
It's not hard to notice, as this particular topic is discussed, that the Christian simply will not address some of the questions I previously asked him.

Christian:
The Law is still in place for the Jews and unsaved:
1 Tim.1:8
But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully;


Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers... "

Commentary:
Moses was a manslayer. He killed an Egyptian with his own hands. Was the law meant for him?
Where in the Old Testament does God state that his laws don't have to be followed by men who are already righteous?

Christian:
The Old Testament is not to be thrown out. And the fact that it and the Jewish people still exist seems to buttress this belief. We can learn about our saviour by studying the Old Testament sacrifices and so on.
Jesus fulfilled these foreshadowments.

Commentary:
Jesus stated that he came to fulfill the law itself, not "foreshadowments" of the law.
Matt 5:17
Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy,
but to fulfil(make full).

How did Jesus fulfill the proper requirements of a sin sacrifice as detailed by God in the Mosaic law?

Christian:
We don't actually sacrifice animals anymore, but we can study the Old Testament law and see how it paralles to Christ.

Commentary:
Fulfilling the law requires that Jesus follow the law.
How did Jesus fulfill the requirements to be a proper sin sacrifice according to the law he said he came to fulfill?

Christian:
He is the once and for all sacrifice so we don't continue to do it, but the whole premise of Christianity rest on the foundation of sin and atonement laid down in the Old Testament.

Commentary:
Here is a foundation about sin and atonement from the Old Testament:

Ezek 18:20-22
The soul that sinneth, it shall die.
The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.
But if the wicked will turn from all his sins that he hath committed,
and keep all my statutes, and do that which is lawful and right, he shall surely live, he shall not die.
All his transgressions that he hath committed, they shall not be mentioned unto him: in his righteousness that he hath done he shall live.

According to God's foundational teaching, each will die for his own sin and will redeem himself by repenting and following ALL of God's laws.
Where do you see anything about Jesus or a man/god needed to die as a human sacrifice in order to atone for the sins of others?

Christian:
You can read Isaiah 53 for God's ultimate purpose in laying down these precepts which still exist and are studied by believers even now in the 21st century

Commentary:
Isa 53 says nothing about a king Messiah. The suffering servant is defined as being Israel, not Jesus or even a king messiah.
A good portion of Isa 53 is written in past tense and has nothing to do with a future event. Nor does Isa 53 state that God would cancel laws which he declared eternal.

Christian:
Concerning Matthew 5:18-19:
When people say that Jesus fulfilled the Old Testament they mean in that he fulfilled the Messianic Prophecies, the Just, Merciful character of God and that his ultimate sacrifice and resurrection fulfilled the promises and foreshadowments found in the Old Testament.

Brad:
Really? This should be interesting.
When did Jesus sit on the throne of Israel as a proper and valid king Messiah would have to have done to fulfill prophesy?
Where does the Old Testament state that a king messiah would come once, be killed, be raised from the dead, and require a second coming to accomplish what he failed to do the first time around?
(The Christian never answered these two critical questions. I wonder why??)

Christian:
A Jewish covenant, the kind in which Abraham was involved with God in. Included seeing yourself as the same person as the other and being willing to do whatever the other was willing to do for you.
God asked Abraham to kill his only Son for him. Abraham was willing and God stoped him short of doing it. Because of the covenant God Made with Abraham, he also had to be willing to give his only Son.
This is an example of foreshadowment.

Commentary:
"Foreshadowment" is an expedient theological tool which attempts to link specific requirements and events in the Old Testament to vague, ambiguous actions by Jesus in the New Testament.
"Foreshadowment" is wishful thinking spelled with a capital "F".

Christian:
Until it occurred, the readers could only have guessed how this would come to pass.

Commentary:
Isn't it interesting how God, who spends several chapters in Exodus giving minute details on how to construct and decorate a tent, would leave his readers "guessing" as to what his word really meant about something as important as eternal salvation.

Christian:
Perhaps a reading of this in conjunction with the 22 Psalm and Isaiah 53 will help you with the idea of a suffering Messiah in Jewish prophesy.

Commentary:
Where does Isa 53 even mention a "Messiah"?
The suffering servant is Israel.
Isa 49:3-6
And said unto me,
Thou art my servant, O Israel, in whom I will be glorified.
Then I said, I have laboured in vain, I have spent my strength for nought, and in vain: yet surely my judgment is with the LORD, and my work with my God.
And now, saith the LORD that formed me from the womb to be his servant, to bring Jacob again to him, Though Israel be not gathered, yet shall I be glorious in the eyes of the LORD, and my God shall be my strength.
And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel:
I will also give thee(Israel, not Jesus) for a light to the Gentiles, that thou(Israel, not Jesus) mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth.

The righteous of Israel are the light of salvation, not a Messiah or Jesus.
Footnote:
The discussion churns on as the Christian tap dances around the Old Testament teachings and basically invents his own version of the Bible to suit his agenda.
When dealing with these excuse makers, try not to let them get too far off topic.
Always try to steer back to the very book they claim is God's word.

Christian:
When issuing a law, the Lord is no idiot.
He is not going to put clauses into his laws... those laws were to be followed as stated, and they are still meant to be followed by the unrighteous (who will all fail in it).

Commentary:
A person becomes righteous by following the law. Righteousness in the Old Testament is defined as following the law. The following examples clearly illustrate this:

Deut 6:25
And
it shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before the LORD our God, as he hath commanded us.

Psa 119:39-44
Turn away my reproach which I fear: for thy judgments(laws) are good.
Behold, I have longed after thy precepts: quicken me in thy righteousness.
Let thy mercies come also unto me, O LORD, even thy salvation, according to thy word.
So shall I have wherewith to answer him that reproacheth me: for I trust in thy word.
And take not the word of truth utterly out of my mouth; for I have hoped in thy judgments.
So shall
I keep thy law continually for ever and ever.

The law is not a curse as Paul proclaimed. Moses stated clearly that the law was not too difficult to obey and follow:

Deut 30:8-11
And thou shalt return and obey the voice of the LORD, and
do all his commandments which I command thee this day.
And the LORD thy God will make thee plenteous in every work of thine hand, in the fruit of thy body, and in the fruit of thy cattle, and in the fruit of thy land, for good: for the LORD will again rejoice over thee for good, as he rejoiced over thy fathers:
If thou shalt hearken unto the voice of the LORD thy God,
to keep his commandments and his statutes which are written in this book of the law, and if thou turn unto the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul.
For this commandment which I command thee this day, it is not hidden from thee, neither is it far off(not too difficult to do).


Even the New Testament recognized that obeying the law was not beyond the ability of people to perform:

Luke 1:5-6
There was in the days of Herod, the king of Judaea, a certain priest named Zacharias, of the course of Abia: and his wife was of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elisabeth.
And
they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.


These people(Zechariah and Elizabeth) followed all of God's commands and laws and were deemed righteous for their actions.
If the laws were to be followed as stated, then Jesus and anyone wishing to please the Lord should be following them.
Where does the Old Testament state that righteous people don't have to follow them?
Where does the Old Testament state that people will all fail to follow his laws? I've just shown otherwise.

Christian:
When issuing his order to Abraham (to kill his own son), the Lord did not state at the end, "... until I tell you to stop." The reason, of course, is Abraham had to follow with all his heart!
This is the same way with the laws of the Old Testament.

Commentary:
Then people are supposed to follow the law.
There are none who are exempt from it's mandates.

Christian:
The New Covenant releases us from the law.
Jer.31:33-34
But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel;
After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.


This shows how God would reveal Jesus as the bringer of salvation and escape from the curse of the law.
We are under the New Covenant now.

Commentary:
This states that God will put his law in their hearts.
It says nothing about any laws being canceled or abolished. A covenant is a contract.
God will reaffirm his existing laws with the people under a new contract.
Also of interest is that Jer 31:29-30 shows that each man will die for his own sin.
There is no mention of a man/god who will become a human sacrifice and atone for the sins of others or that people will have to believe in a man/god to have their sins forgiven.

Jer 31:29-30
In those days they shall say no more, The fathers have eaten a sour grape, and the children's teeth are set on edge.
But every one shall die for his own iniquity: every man that eateth the sour grape, his teeth shall be set on edge.


In Jer 31:36 God states that only if his decrees, (which are his laws) vanish from his sight, will the future generations of Israel cease to be a nation before him.

Jer 31:36
If those ordinances(laws) depart from before me, saith the LORD, then the seed of Israel also shall cease from being a nation before me for ever.


I don't see anything in Jer 31 which states that God's laws would be canceled or put aside in favor of a new doctrine of atonement.
The laws are eternal just as Psa 119:152,160 declare.
They are reaffirmed under the New Covenant which is simply a new contract with the people. A new contract is not a new set of laws and requirements.

Christian:
First, in regards to Jesus ignoring the food laws, the sabbath and the law on adultery:
Which food laws are you referring too? The Pharisees tried to get him for "breaking the tradition of the elders" in not washing his hands before he ate.

Commentary:
Jesus declared all foods clean in Mark 7:14-19. All foods are not clean according to Lev 11.

Christian:
The second part of that was that Jesus was eating some grain off of a wheat plant and this broke the Jewish tradition in the Mishnah, it could hardly be considered harvasting a crop as was forbidden in Ex34:21.
Jesus went on to tell them that by their legalistic reasoning even David was a sabbath breaker. Matthew 12:3.

Commentary:
Claiming that David did it too does not excuse the violation of the law itself.
And Jesus is using a faulty analogy as David didn't pick grain or watch others do so in his presence on the Sabbath(Mark 2:23-28).

Christian:
Working on the Sabbath? I would like to have a demonstration of this. Jesus confronted legalism.

Commentary:
No work of any type was to be performed on the Sabbath. Gathering grain in any quantity was work.
The following verses clearly indicate how holy the Sabbath was supposed to be.
Exo 31:14
Ye shall
keep the sabbath therefore; for it is holy unto you: every one that defileth it shall surely be put to death: for whosoever doeth any work therein, that soul shall be cut off from among his people.

Exo 35:2
Six days shall work be done, but on the seventh day there shall be to you an holy day, a sabbath of rest to the LORD: whosoever doeth work therein shall be put to death.


Deut 5:14
But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God:
in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, nor thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thine ox, nor thine ass, nor any of thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates; that thy manservant and thy maidservant may rest as well as thou.

Gathering of food for the Sabbath was supposed to be done on preparation day, not on the Sabbath.

Exo 16:29
See, for that the LORD hath given you the sabbath, therefore
he giveth you on the sixth day(preparation day) the bread of two days; abide ye every man in his place, let no man go out of his place on the seventh day.

God was so serious about this law that he ordered a man killed for picking up sticks on the Sabbath(Num 15:32-36).
Picking grain is no less a violation.

Christian:
What crime are you accusing him of? How is this breaking the Sabbath?

Commentary:
Gathering grain in any quantity was work. No work of any kind was allowed.
Jesus with his powers could have easily manifested some food instead of looking for trouble by picking grain on the Sabbath. Or he could have instructed his disciples to pick grain on preparation day, eliminating the problem in the first place.

The Pharisees were trying to determine if Jesus was indeed representing God.
God gave clear instructions about his laws.

Lev 19:37
Therefore shall ye
observe all my statutes, and all my judgments, and do them: I am the LORD.

God also made it clear that if someone was violating the law or not abiding by it, the Pharisees were to let them know they were not following the law.

Lev 19:17
Thou shalt not hate thy brother in thine heart: thou shalt in any wise
rebuke thy neighbour(if he goes astray), and not suffer sin upon him.

Those who strayed from the law were to be rebuked for doing so.

The Jews were trying to determine if Jesus really was a teacher of God's law or a false prophet. The law also states:
Deut 18:20
But the prophet, which
shall presume to speak a word in my name, which I have not commanded him to speak, or that shall speak in the name of other gods, even that prophet shall die.

Christian:
The Gospels record The Teachers of the Law and the Scribes and the like, testing Jesus and looking for imperfections with him.

Commentary:
They were testing him to see if he really represented God and his laws.
Jesus was supposed to be a teacher who represented God's word. His actions proved otherwise.

Christian:
At the same time on the otherside of the city, another group of priest were examining the Passover Lamb, to determine rather or not it had any blimishes. And the of course Jesus and the Lamb were sacrificed in the same time table. This is what is meant by a fullfillment of ceramonial law.

Commentary:
Where are humans listed among the clean animals approved for sacrifice by God?
You've yet to answer that question.
There is no singular Passover lamb. The Passover lambs(plural) were not even an atonement sacrifice. Jesus was supposed to be a human sacrifice which atoned for sin wasn't he?
Equating year old lambs which were not even sin sacrifices to Jesus doesn't fulfill anything. Jesus didn't say he was "sort of" supposed to fulfill the law, but was to fulfill the law itself.
What were the requirements for a proper sin sacrifice according to the law?

Christian:
When Christians talk about Jesus fulfilling the law they are referring to all of the Ceremonial law and the Messanic Prophecies.

Commentary:
This indicates that to the Christian mind, any vague or imagined reference to Jesus is sufficient to establish that a specific law or prophecy is fulfilled.
Since such wishful thinking is employed in this type of exercise, any interpretation of scripture is valid once you have disconnected yourself from the basic requirements.
Under this belief system, God doesn't really mean what he says but means whatever the reader wants him to be saying.

Final note:
This is what Christianity really boils down to. The Bible means whatever the Christian wants it to mean.
It's a big stew pot of rationalizations, wishful thinking, mixed with some nice sounding teachings and perhaps some elements of truth.
But make no mistake about it, it's not the word of a "God" but the preferred beliefs of humans, who are always seeking to make themselves comfortable with the reason for their very existence.


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